>the proletarian revolution will transform existing society gradually and will be able to abolish private property only when the means of production are available in sufficient quantity.
How did China done so in any difference from social democracy or hell even Keynesian economics? How bringing back repressive policies that further entrench China into the global capitalist economy, a political direction continuously being emphasized in every modern CPC theoretical document, is revolutionary when it’s been done by every single capitalist country?
>(i) Limitation of private property through progressive taxation, heavy inheritance taxes, abolition of inheritance through collateral lines (brothers, nephews, etc.) forced loans, etc.
<taxation is socialist you guys
Again the only thing listed that China did is “progressive taxes” with income. The rest don’t even exist in any Chinese law document. Hell even some western shithole have more progressive taxation than China, which similarly enough is just as plagued with bourgeois tax dodging than anywhere else. You have given no proof to otherwise with your infantile assertion.
>(ii) Gradual expropriation of landowners, industrialists, railroad magnates and shipowners, partly through competition by state industry, partly directly through compensation in the form of bonds.
What expropriation? If anything these parasites are now back stronger than ever, being fed solely through the class collaborationist line that you dengoids touted as a form of party control of the economy. The state industry doesn’t compete with them, it nurtured them to their modern day.
>(iii) Confiscation of the possessions of all emigrants and rebels against the majority of the people.
It was re-education you utter buffoon. There were no confiscation of property. The Chinese bourgeoisie even go one step further and holding real estate in other country. In what delusional reality that forced abolition of religion carry an economic side to it other than national security?
>(iv) Organization of labor or employment of proletarians on publicly owned land, in factories and workshops, with competition among the workers being abolished and with the factory owners, in so far as they still exist, being obliged to pay the same high wages as those paid by the state.
Factory owners in China oppressed their workers to make most of your cheap goods you nonce! If anything the average Chinese worker enjoys low wages in every side of production even state industries. Also most publicly owned shit got abolished when Deng demolished the iron rice bowl.
>(v) An equal obligation on all members of society to work until such time as private property has been completely abolished. Formation of industrial armies, especially for agriculture.
Yet this doesn’t seem to be the case in the Chinese bourgeoisie class, which have no other interest than enriching themselves.
>(vi) Centralization of money and credit in the hands of the state through a national bank with state capital, and the suppression of all private banks and bankers.
No suppression exist. In opposition to your shit claim, the private banking in China is booming. Especially when the central bank only direct the economy in the same role as the burgerstani feds. Unless you’re arguing for the existence of a central national bank being inherently socialist, in which case you’re worse than an ancap and need to off yourself.
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